When Hitler concluded the Munich Agreement , he said he was " cheated out of his war ".
When Hitler took over the remainder of the Czech. State he was not returning Germans to the Reich , and he proved that his statement that he had " no further territorial demands to make " was false.
What grounds did Hitler have violating " Munich " and occupying what remained ?
Given the pledge to Poland was Hitler's decision to invade not wreckless and ultimately against the direction of his own policy ?